View Full Version : Why is it so?
RobE34
08-19-2006, 01:18 PM
How did it come to pass that we appear to have the distinction of BMW cars being known as "Bimmers" and motor bikes as "Beamers"?
dternst
08-19-2006, 02:21 PM
From my favorite websource: Wikipedia:
The term "beemer" started as an acronym for the abbreviation "BMW," adapted from the early-20th-Century British pronunciation of BSA (as "beeser" or "beezer"), whose motorcycles were often racing BMWs. Over time, the term became closely associated with BMW motorcycles.
The term "bimmer" was later coined by people with too much free time to refer (exclusively) to BMW automobiles. As such, use of the word "beemer" to refer to a BMW automobile is frowned upon by some BMW enthusiasts, because it is the term used for motorcycles. Although the distinction is completely arbitrary, to this day, the media, movies, and most people still use the term "beemer" to refer to the automobiles due to not being pedantic jerks like some BMW enthusiasts. Interestingly for people who are pedantic, but not necessarily jerks, in the German language, the correct pronunciation of the term "bimmer" is "beemer."
The initials BMW are pronounced "beh emm veh" in German.
BMW is also the abbreviation in the UK for a cocktail of Baileys, Malibu and Whisky.
Hmmm, I thought it was Beamer, not Beemer. Good find though.
Alexlind123
08-19-2006, 03:39 PM
Pedantic jerks! All of us!
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